Had a friend post this on fb.
To keep it simple:
-2014 Men's World Cup generated $4.8B and distributed $385M in prizes to the different teams. Thats about 12% of the total revenue generated, distributed between all of the different teams as prize money. The US Men's $9M is only 2% of the prize money.
-2015 Womens World Cup generated $56M and distributed $15M of that to all the different teams. Thats 27% of the total revenue given as prize money to the different teams. The woman's $2M accounts for 13% of the prize money.
Even Germany who won the world cup, earning $35M (which blows the woman's $2M out of the water) accounted for only 9% of the prize money.
If you use the ratios, the woman actually earned a greater percentage of the prize money than the men, but, because the Men's World Cup generated more money, they technically earned more. However, if the Women's world cup earned more money, they would have earned more money than the men.
"Sticking to the ratios, lets say the Women's world cup earned the same amount as the Men's world cup, $4.8B. The prize money would have been $1.03B and the woman would have earned $126M.
This isn't about gender inequality. I'm not sure what they're going for... more exposure, more sympathy, more money... Im not sure what it is, but, this isn't gender inequality.
Unless, the entire world is sexist because they enjoy watching men's soccer more than women's soccer. Then yes."